Đề ThiLớp 12Lớp 5Tiếng Anh

Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Lê Quý Đôn

Tài liệu Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Lê Quý Đôn được HOC247 biên tập và tổng hợp và giới thiệu đến các em học sinh lớp 12, với phần đề và đáp án, lời giải chi tiết giúp các em rèn luyện ôn tập chuẩn bị cho kì thi THPT Quốc Gia sắp tới. Hi vọng tài liệu này sẽ có ích cho các em, chúc các em có kết quả học tập tốt!

TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021 – 2022

Môn TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

1. Đề số 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. easy            B. sea               C. learn              D. eat

Question 2: A. park            B. yard              C. card               D. carry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. community  B. particular        C. mathematics                 D. authority

Question 4: A. explanation B. experiment     C. accomplishment            D. discovery

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: If you want to borrow my car, promise to drive careful.

Question 6: It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure.

Question 7: Paris has been well-known about its famous monuments, beautiful music, and wonderful restaurants for over 100 years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: I don’t agree with……………… very young and pretty criminals

A. committing       B. enforcing     C. imprisoning                   D. offending

Question 9: What beautiful eyes………………!

A. does she have               B. she has     C. has she         D. she doesn’t have

Question 10: ……………… long, I’m sure you will be speaking English……………… a native speaker.

A. After/ like       B. Before/ like            C. After/ for      D. Before/ for

Question 11: He’s left his book at home; he’s always so………………

A. forgetful   B. forgettable           C. forgotten                D. forgetting

Question 12: We are going to build a fence around the field with ………………  to breeding sheep and cattle

A. a goal       B. an outlook                 C. a reason                        D. a view

Question 13: The meeting didn’t……………… until late.

A. end up                 B. break up        C. come about                   D. fall through

Question 14: Fiona is very angry ……………… her boss’s decision to sack several members of staff.

A. against       B. by     C. for            D. about

Question 15: Media reports on the outcome of military intervention often…………….. the true facts.

A. divert         B. detract       C. depose          D. distort

Question 16: He hurried ……………… he wouldn’t be late for class.

A. since          B. as if           C. unless          D. so that

Question 17: When his parents are away, his oldest brother………………

A. knocks it off     B. calls the shots    C. draws the line   D. is in the same boat

Question 18: If he had been more careful, he………………

A. won’t fall         B. wouldn’t fall       C. wouldn’t have fallen    D. would have fallen

Question 19: We should participate in the movements ……………… the natural environment.

A. organizing to conserve

B. organized conserving

C. which organize to conserve

D. organized to conserve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Jenny: “Thank you very much for your donation, Mr. Robinson.”

– Mr. Robinson: “………………………………”

A. You can say that again

B. I see

C. You are right

D. Delighted I was able to help

Question 21: John: “Well it was nice talking to you, but I have to dash.”

Jane: “……………………………… ”

A. Well, another time

B. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you, too

C. OK, see you

D. That’s nice

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: I am glad I was able to be there for my friend when her mom died..

A. to offer support in time of need for

B. to cry with

C. to travel with

D. to visit

Question 23: The sign indicates the correct direction to the store.

A. looks        B. shows         C. says       D. needs

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: It is relatively easy to identify the symptoms of the peculiar disease.

A. evidently       B. absolutely           C. comparatively               D. obviously

Question 25: When you consider all the advantages you’ve gained I think you’ll admit you had a good run for your money.

A. a lot of loss from your money

B. a lot of benefits from your money

C. a lot of advantages from your money

D. a lot of failures in making your money

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: I whispered as I didn’t want anybody to hear our conversation.

A. So as not to hear our conversation I whispered.

B. Since nobody wanted to hear our conversation I whispered.

C. Because I whispered, nobody heard our conversation.

D. I lowered my voice in order that our conversation couldn’t be heard.

Question 27: Though he tried hard, he didn’t succeed.

A. However he tried hard, he didn’t succeed.

B. However hard he tried, he didn’t succeed.

C. However he didn’t succeed hard, he tried hard.

D. However he tried hard, but he didn’t succeed.

Question 28: “If you keep eating so much fat, you’ll gain weight.” said his mother.

A. His mother suggested him gaining weight if he kept eating so much fat.

B. His mother warned him that he would gain weight if he kept eating so much fat.

C. His mother threatened him to gain weight if he kept eating so much fat

D. His mother complained about his gaining weight if he kept eating so much fat.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.

A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.

B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

Question 30: Crazianna is a big country. Unfortunately, it has never received respect from its neighbours.

A. Though Crazianna is a big country, it has never received respect from its neighbours.

B. Crazianna has never received respect from its neighbours because it is a big country.

C. It is Crazianna, a big country, that has never received respect from its neighbours.

D. Crazianna is such a big country that it has never received respect from its neighbours.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that bestfits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

How men first learnt to (31) ……………… words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a mystery. All we really know is that men, unlike animals, (32) ……………… invented certain sounds to express thoughts and feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and  that later they agreed (33) ……………… certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, whetherspoken or written in letters, are called words.

Great writers are those who not only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that

(34) ……………… powerfully to our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call literary style. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. He can convey his meaning in words which sing like music, and which by their position and association can (35) ……………… men to tears. We should, therefore, learn to choose our words carefully, or they will make our speech silly and vulgar.

Question 31: A. invent

B. create

C. make

D. discover

Question 32: A. whatever

B. however

C. somewhat

D. somehow

Question 33: A. at

B. upon

C. for

D. in

Question 34: A. interest

B. appeal

C. attract

D. lure

Question 35: A. take

B. send

C. break

D. move

 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

THE DIGITAL DIVIDE

Information technology is influencing the way many of us live and work today. We use the Internet to look and apply for jobs, shop, conduct research, make airline reservations, and explore areas of interest. We use e-mail and the Internet to communicate instantaneously with friends and business associates around the world. Computers are commonplace in homes and the workplace.

Although the number of Internet users is growing exponentially each year, most of the world’s population does not have access to computers or the Internet. Only 6 percent of the population in developing countries are connected to telephones. Although more than 94 percent of U.S. households have a telephone, only 42 percent have personal computers at home and 26 percent have Internet access. The lack of what most of us would consider a basic communications necessity -the telephone -does not occur just in developing nations. On some Native American reservations only 60 percent of the residents have a telephone. The move to wireless connections may eliminate the need for telephone lines, but it does not remove the barrier to equipment costs.

Who has Internet  access?  Fifty  percent  of  the children in urban  households  with  an     income  over $75,000 have Internet access, compared with 2 percent ofthe children in low-income, rural households. Nearly half of college-educated people have Internet access, compared to 6 percent of those with only some high school education. Forty percent of households with two parents have access; 15 percent of female, single-parent households do. Thirty percent of white households, 11 percent of black households, and 13 percent of Hispanic households have access. Teens and children are the two fastest-growing segments of Internet users. The digital divide between the populations who have access to the Internet and information technology tools is based on income, race, education, household type, and geographic location. Only 16 percent of the rural poor, rural and central city minorities, young householders, and single parent female households are connected.

Another problem that exacerbates these disparities is that African-Americans, Hispanics, and Native Americans hold few of the jobs in information technology. Women hold about 20 percent of these jobs and are receiving fewer than 30 percent of the computer science degrees. The result is that women and members of the most oppressed ethnic groups are not eligible for the jobs with the highest salaries at graduation. Baccalaureate candidates with degrees in computer science were offered the highest salaries  of all new college graduates in 1998 at $44,949.

Do similar disparities exist in schools? More than 90 percent of all schools in the country are wired with at least one Internet connection. The number of classrooms with Internet connections differs by the income level of students. Using the percentage of students who are eligible for free lunches at a school to determine income level, we see that nearly twice as many of the schools with more affluent students have wired classrooms as those with high concentrations of low-income students.

Access to computers and the Internet will be important in reducing disparities between groups. It will require greater equality across diverse groups whose members develop knowledge and skills in computer and information technologies. If computers and the Internet are to be used to promote equality, they will have to become accessible to populations that cannot currently afford the equipment which needs to be updated every three years or so. However, access alone is not enough. Students will have to be interacting with the technology in authentic settings. As technology becomes a tool for learning in almost all  courses taken by students, it will be seen as a means to an end rather than an end in itself. If it is used in culturally relevant ways, all students can benefit from its power.

Question 36: Why does the author mention the telephone in paragraph 2?

A. To contrast the absence of telephone usage with that of Internet usage

B. To describe the development of communications from telephone to Internet

C. To demonstrate that even technology like the telephone is not available to all

D. To argue that basic telephone service is a first step to using the Internet

Question 37: Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the statement “Although the number ……………… or the Internet.” in the paragraph 2?

The number of computers that can make the Internet available to most of the people in the world is not increasing fast enough.

The Internet is available to most of the people in the world, even though they don’t have their own computer terminals.

C. Most of the people in the world use the Internet now because the number of computers has been increasing every year.

The number of people who use computers and the Internet is increasing every year, but most people in the world still do not have connections.

Question 38: Based on information in paragraph 3, which of the following best explains the term “digital divide?”

A. The disparity in the opportunity to use the Internet

B. Differences in socioeconomic levels among Internet users

C. The number of Internet users in developing nations

D. Segments of the population with Internet access

Question 39: Why does the author give details about the percentages of Internet users in paragraph 3?

A. To argue for more Internet connections at all levels of society

B. To suggest that improvements in Internet access are beginning to take place

C. To prove that there are differences in opportunities among social groups

D. To explain why many people have Internet connections now

Question 40: According to paragraph 4, why are fewer women and minorities employed in the field of computer technology?

A. They do not have an interest in technology.

B. They prefer training for jobs with higher salaries.

C. They are not admitted to the degree programs.

D. They do not possess the educational qualifications.

Question 41: The word “concentrations” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. confidence                    B. protections                    C. numbers         D. support

Question 42: What can be inferred from paragraph 6 about Internet access?

A. The cost of replacing equipment is a problem.

B. Technology will be more helpful in three years.

C. Better computers need to be designed.

D. Schools should provide newer computers for students.

*Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a jointly cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation, based on group organization and attitudes.

In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group contains nearly all of each individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with each member. There is an interlocking identity of individual, group and task performed. Means and goals become one, for cooperation itself is valued.

While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterature societies, secondary cooperation is characteristic of many modem societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most members of the group feel loyalty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration. Members perform tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the form of salary, prestige, or power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are examples of secondary cooperation.

In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies the shared  work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization is loose and fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goals: it breaks down when the common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is not, strictly speaking, cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term antagonistic cooperation is sometimes used for this relationship.

Question 43: What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage?

A. To offer a brief definition of cooperation

B. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict

C. To urge readers to cooperate more often

D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes

Question 44: The word cherished in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to………………

A. agreed on                      B. prized                           C. defined                         D. set up

Question 45: Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by information in the passage?

A. It is an ideal that can never be achieved

B. It was confined to prehistoric times

C. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to cooperate

D. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing skills

Question 46: According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary cooperation?

A. To get rewards for themselves

B. To defeat a common enemy

C. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation

D. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds

Question 47: Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is defined in the fourth paragraph?

A. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow

B. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party

C. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades

D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company

Question 48: Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of cooperation?

A. Accommodation

B. Latent conflict

C. Tertiary cooperation

D. Antagonistic cooperation

Question 49: The word fragile in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

A. poorly planned             B. involuntary                   C. inefficient                     D. easily broken

Question 50: Which of the following best describes the overall organization of the passage?

A. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic

B. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relations

C. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms

D. The author provides a number of concrete examples and then draws a conclusion

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1.C

2.D

3.C

4.A

5.D

6.A

7.B

8.C

9.B

10.B

11.A

12.D

13.B

14.D

15.D

16.D

17.B

18.C

19.D

20.D

21.C

22.A

23.B

24.B

25.A

26.D

27.B

28.B

29.D

30.A

31.A

32.D

33.B

34.B

35.D

36.C

37.D

38.A

39.C

40.D

41.C

42.A

43.A

44.B

45.D

46.A

47.B

48.B

49.D

50.C

2. Đề số 2

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Câu 1 (NB): A. interact     B. understand     C. volunteer   D. contribute 

Câu 2 (NB): A. maintain    B. perform          C. prefer        D. offer 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Câu 3 (NB): A. cleaned     B. looked       C. climbed     D. enjoyed 

Câu 4 (NB): A. lake           B. play           C. shape        D. many 

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 5 (TH): At first, John said he hadn’t broken the vase, but later he accepted it. 

A. denied       B. discussed C. protected D. admitted 

Câu 6 (TH): An indecisive commander is unlikely to win the confidence of his men. 

A. slow           B. determined           C. hesitant     D. reliant 

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 7 (TH): My kids only have a faint memory of our hometown as they have lived away from it for a long time. 

A. poor           B. clear           C. quick         D. vague 

Câu 8 (VDC): When I suggested he was mistaken, John got hot under the collar and stormed out of the room. 

A. got emotional       B. became furious    C. remained calm     D. felt anxious 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Câu 9 (TH): The teacher demanded that the classroom _____ cleaned immediately. 

A. is    B. be   C. are D. was 

Câu 10 (TH): As soon as I _____, I’m going to return to my hometown. 

A. have graduated    B. will graduate        C. will have graduated         D. am going to graduate 

Câu 11 (TH): The captain is the last person ______ the sinking ship. 

A. leaving      B. to leave     C. that leave D. leaves 

Câu 12 (TH): I hope the new year will bring you _____, health and prosperity. 

A. success      B. succeed     C. successful             D. successfully 

Câu 13 (NB): If you work hard, you _____ pass the exam. 

A. will            B. won’t         C. would        D. wouldn’t 

Câu 14 (TH): When Tom _____ yesterday, I _____ the washing up in the kitchen. 

A. called – did           B. called – was doing           C. was calling – did D. was calling – was doing 

Câu 15 (TH): She always said that when she grew up, she wanted to be _____ doctor. 

A. an   B. a     C. the D.

Câu 16 (TH): _____ the sky was grey and cloudy, we went to the beach. 

A. Because    B. Although   C. Despite      D. Because of 

Câu 17 (VD): _____ is not clear to researchers. 

A. Did dinosaurs become extinct

B. Why dinosaurs having become extinct

C. Dinosaurs became extinct

D. Why dinosaurs became extinct 

Câu 18 (VD): He tried to ______ himself with everyone by paying then compliments. 

A. gratify       B. please        C. ingratiate D. commend 

Câu 19 (TH): I think there’s a picture of the hotel _____ the first page. 

A. on B. at    C. in   D. of 

Câu 20 (VD): The smell was so bad that it completely _____ us off our food. 

A. set B. took           C. got D. put 

Câu 21 (VDC): I won’t buy that car because it has too much _____ on it. 

A. ups and downs     B. odds and ends      C. wear and tear       D. white lie 

Câu 22 (VD): I had a red _____ day yesterday. 

A. tape            B. wood         C. pepper       D. letter 

Câu 23 (TH): You ___ have eaten the mushrooms if you were not sure. 

A. should       B. shouldn’t C. would        D. could 

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Câu 24 (TH): Jenny and Kathy are arranging to see a new film.

– Jenny: “Why don’t you come over and see the new film with me?”

– Kathy: “________” 

A. Great, I’d love to.

B. Oh, I’m afraid so. 

C. You’re welcome.

D. Wow! You didn’t realize that. 

Câu 25 (TH): Helen and Sarah are talking about their school’s field trip.

– Helen: “This is the best field trip we’ve ever had”.

– Sarah: “________. Everyone enjoyed it to the fullest.” 

A. I don’t think that’s a good idea

B. I totally disagree 

C. You’re right

D. Never mind 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks 

Our position in the family is one of the factors (26)_________ strongly affect our personality. The eldest or first-born children get maximum (27) _________ from their parents and the result is that they are usually self-confident and ambitious people. Firstborns are also responsible because they often have to look after their younger brothers or sisters. (28) _________, they can be quite bossy and dominant as they often give orders and are fearful of losing position. Middle children are usually sociable since they have other children to play with. They are good at peacemaking and compromising. Yet, on the negative side, (29) _________ children can be jealous and moody ones. The youngest in a family is probably quite a relaxed person and some are often lazy. This is because they always have someone in the family to help them. Yet, they are charming and (30) _________, have a good sense of humor and know how to manipulate others when they want to get their way.

—(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 2 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)— 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1-D

2-D

3-B

4-D

5-D

6-C

7-B

8-C

9-B

10-A

11-B

12-A

13-A

14-B

15-B

16-B

17-D

18-C

19-A

20-D

21-C

22-D

23-B

24-A

25-C

26-A

27-B

28-D

29-B

30-C

31-B

32-A

33-B

34-C

35-B

36-D

37-C

38-A

39-C

40-A

41-C

42-D

43-B

44-D

45-A

46-A

47-B

48-A

49-C

50-A

3. Đề số 3

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 1. Copper is the favored metal for electricians’ wire because of _________. 

A. its excellent conductivity

B. it is excellent conductor  

C. excellent conductivity of it

D. so conductive is it 

Question 2. We all congratulated Lisa _________ winning the first prize.  

A. for                         B. about         C. with                       D. on 

Question 3. In 1959, the political philosopher Hannah Arendt became the first women _________ a full professor at Princeton University.  

А. to appoint B. to be appointed    C. was appointed      D. who be appointed as

Question 4. They decided to _________ their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.  

A. take up      B. turn round             C. put off       D. do with  

Question 5. _________, we had already put out the fire.  

A. Until the firemen arrives to help

B. No sooner had the firemen arrived to help  

C. By the time the firemen arrived to help

D. After the firemen have arrived to help

Question 6. The course was so difficult that I didn’t _________ any progress at all.  

A. make         B. do   C. produce     D. create 

Question 7. No sooner _________ the comer than the wheel came off.  

A. the van turned

B. had the van turned  

C. did the van turn

D. the van had turned

Question 8. The clown was wearing a _________ wig and red nose.  

A. red funny plastic

B. funny red plastic

C. funny plastic red

D. red plastic funny 

Question 9. I like that photo very much. Could you make an _________ for me?  

A. exploration           B. enlargement          C. extension D. expansion 

Question 10. Failing to submit the proposal on time was _________ for Tom.  

A. a real kick in the pants

B. an open and shut case  

C. a shot in the dark

D. a mail in the coffin 

Question 11. In state schools, students have to follow a National _________ specified by the Ministry of Education and Training.  

A. Subject      B. Curriculum           C. Program    D. Obligation

Question 12. It is said the Robinhood robbed _________ rich und gave the money to _________ poor.  

A. a/ a             B. a/ the          C. the/ the      D. the/ a  

Question 13. The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new _________ it made in the 1990s.  

A. or   B. because     C. however    D. Although 

Question 14. _________ no one was absent from the farewell party last night.  

A. Though it rains heavily

B. As it rained heavily  

C. In spite of heavily rain

D. Heavily as it rained 

Question 15. Larry was so _________ in his novel that he forgot about his dinner cooking in the oven.  

A. absorbed   B. obliged      C. drawn        D. attracted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 16. A. announced           B. enjoyed     C. scored       D. sponsored

Question 17. A. polite         B. advice        C. diploma     D. pilot 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 18. A. assistance B. appearance           C. position     D. confidence

Question 19. A. lecture       B. figure         C. wonder      D. inspire

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 20. Neither the clerks nor the department manager are being considered for promotions this time. 

A. nor             B. department           C. are D. for promotions 

Question 21. Passing a driver’s test is a necessity requirement for all people wishing to drive a motor vehicle. 

A. Passing      B. necessity   C. wishing     D. to drive  

Question 22. ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as provide opportunities for its members. 

A. aims at      B. economic growth             C. provide     D. its

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 23. Be a smart shopper, choose your seafood responsibly.  

A. tidy            B. stupid        C. soft            D. weak

Question 24. Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate more in the future.  

A. resolve a conflict over

B. express disapproval of  

C. find favor with

D. voice opinions on 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. 

Question 25. Teenagers can become addicted to social networking if they can’t control they spend online.  

A. indifferent to        B. dependent on        C. exhausted by        D. hooked on

Question 26. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot of prize.  

A. ability        B. advantage C. difficulty D. barrier 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 27. I’m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.  

A. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.  

B. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.  

C. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam. 

D. Luisa may he very disappointed when she failed the exam. 

Question 28. The weather was very hot. The boys continued playing football in the schoolyard.  

A. Despite the weather was hot, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard  

B. An spite of the hot weather, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard  

C. Because the hot weather, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard  

D. Because of the weather was hot, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard.

Question 29. People think the Samba is the most popular dance in Brazil.  

A. It is thought that the Samba is among the most popular dances in Brazil.  

B. It is thought that the Samba was the most popular dance in Brazil. 

C. The Sumba is thought to be the most popular dance in Brazil.  

D. In Brawl the Samba is thought to be one of the most popular dances. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

—(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 3 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)— 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SÓ 3

1-A

2-D

3-B

4-C

5-C

6-A

7-B

8-B

9-B

10-D

11-B

12-C

13-D

14-D

15-A

16-A

17-C

18-D

19-D

20-C

21-B

22-C

23-B

24-B

25-B

26-C

27-C

28-B

29-C

30-B

31-A

32-C

33-C

34-A

35-D

36-D

37-D

38-A

39-A

40-C

41-C

42-C

43-A

44-D

45-B

46-B

47-C

48-D

49-A

50-B

4. Đề số 4

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 1. The guest of honors, along with his wife and children, were sitting at the first table when we had a party yesterday. 

A. his wife     B. were           C. at    D. when 

Question 2. To show the different ideas about love and marriage, a survey was conducted in American, Chinese and Indian students. 

A. To show    B. about         C. a survey    D. conducted in 

Question 3. We received a SOS signal appearing right here in this city, please connect the support team there immediately. 

A. a SOS        B. appearing  C. connect     D. there 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. 

Question 4. People have used coal and oil to generate electricity for a long time. 

A. make         B. prevent      C. create        D. invent 

Question 5. School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools. 

A. paid           B. divided      C. depended D. required 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 6. Farmers depend on meteorologists. They need meteorologists’ accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning. 

A. Due to meteorologists’ accurate forecasts, farmers depend on them for successful agricultural planning. 

B. Farmers depend on meteorologists who need their accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning. 

C. Farmers depend on meteorologists, whose accurate forecasts they need for successful agricultural planning.

D. Farmers need meteorologists’ accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning and so they depend on you. 

Question 7. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the talk show. 

A. Provided you do not get nervous, the talk show won’t go badly for you. 

B. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the talk show. 

C. Talk shows are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm. 

D. Even if you are afraid of the talk show, it is important not to express it. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

SCIENTIFIC DISCOVERIES

A satellite is best understood as a projectile, or an object that has only one force acting on gravity. Technically speaking, anything that crosses the Karman Line at an altitude of kilometers (62 miles) is considered in space. However, a satellite needs to be going fast — at least 8 km (5 miles) a second – to stop from falling back down to Earth immediately. 

If a satellite is traveling fast enough, it will perpetually “fall” toward Earth, but the Earth’s curvature means that the satellite will fall around our planet instead of crashing back on the surface. Satellites that travel closer to Earth are at risk of falling because the drag of atmospheric molecules will slow the satellites down. Those that orbit farther away from Earth have fewer molecules to contend with. 

There are several accepted “zones” of orbits around the Earth. One is called low-Earth-orbit, which extends from about 160 to 2,000 km (about 100 to 1,250 miles). This is the zone where the ISS orbits and where the space shuttle used to do its work. In fact, all human missions except for the Apollo flights to the moon took place in this zone. Most satellites also work in this zone. 

Geostationary or geosynchronous orbit is the best spot for communications satellites to use, however. This is a zone above Earth’s equator at an altitude of 35,786 km (22,236 mi). At this altitude, the rate of “fall” around the Earth is about the same as Earth’s rotation, which allows the satellite to stay above the same spot on Earth almost constantly. The satellite thus keeps a perpetual connection with a fixed antenna on the ground, allowing for reliable communications. When geostationary satellites reach the end of their life, protocol dictates they’re moved out of the way for a new satellite to take their place. That’s because there is only so much room, or so many “slots” in that orbit, to allow the satellites to operate without interference. 

While some satellites are best used around the equator, others are better suited to more polar orbits – those that circle the Earth from pole to pole so that their coverage zones include the north and south poles. Examples of polar-orbiting satellites include weather satellites and reconnaissance satellites. 

(Source: https://www.space.com/24839-satellites.html) 

Question 8. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? 

A. Parts of a satellite 

B. Moons around other worlds 

C. What keeps a satellite from falling to Earth? 

D. What stops a satellite from crashing into another satellite? 

Question 9. Which of the following best summaries paragraph 5? 

A. All satellites circle the Earth from pole to pole. 

B. Orbit of satellites depends on their coverage zones and using purpose. 

C. Satellites are best used around the equator. 

D. Satellites include weather satellites and reconnaissance satellites. 

Question 10. Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 4 as an element that makes a satellite stay above the same spot on Earth? 

A. Geostationary or geosynchronous orbit

B. Earth’s rotation 

C. The zone above Earth’s equator

D. The rate of “fall” around the Earth 

Question 11. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? 

A. satellite needs to be going fast – at least 8 km (5 miles) a second. 

B. Satellites that travel closer to Earth contend with drag of more atmospheric molecules. 

C. Satellites keep a perpetual connection with a fixed antenna on the ground 

D. The Apollo flights to the moon took place in low-Earth-orbit, which extends from about 160 to 2,000 km (about 100 to 1,250 miles). 

Question 12. The word “perpetually” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________. 

A. gradually B. quickly      C. technically           D. continuously 

Question 13. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the reason why satellites move out of the way? 

A. They takes too much room.

B. There are not enough “slots” for them. 

C. They fail to operate without interference.

D. They reaches the end of their life. 

Question 14. The word “Those” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.

A. planet        B. surfaces     C. satellites   D. molecules 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

The British are particular about timings and being late is frowned upon, but being on time is a complicated matter because in some situations, being a few minutes early on others means being exactly on time and in some instances, it is completely acceptable to arrive 10 minutes to a few hours later than the stated time. This can be a minefield for someone who is new to the UK, so here are some basic rules that will help you get your timing right whatever the situation. 

In formal meetings, such as job interviews, you should arrive at least five minutes before your meeting. This will give you time to compose yourself before your big meeting. In the UK, arriving late for a formal meeting is seen as unprofessional and will reflect badly on you. If you are running late, ring your host to let them know you will be late. On arrival, apologize sincerely and offer a reason for your lateness, such as you got lost or the train was delayed. It will help you redeem yourself. However, if you are late because you set off later than you should have, it’s wise to keep that to yourself! 

If you have been invited to a dinner party, you should arrive exactly on time as the host will have planned when they will serve the food. You will find that your host will serve their guests a pre-dinner drink, so that gives you a bit of wiggle room, but if you are running later than 10 minutes, you should ring your host and let them know how late you might be. That way they can decide whether to go ahead and serve the other guests. When you arrive you should offer the host and the other guests your apology for being late. 

(Source: https://www.oxfordinternationalenglish.com/) 

Question 15. What is the author’s main purpose in the passage? 

A. To prove that the British are strict about timings 

B. To explain what readers should do if they are late in the UK 

C. To persuade readers to be on time in any situation in the UK 

D. To provide readers some primary regulations so that they will be on time in the UK 

Question 16. According to the second paragraph, what kind of reasons should you offer come late for a job interview? 

A. careless     B. subjective C. objective   D. neglectful 

Question 17. The word “compose” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________. 

A. keep calm             B. compile     C. create        D. comprise 

Question 18. What is the best advice when you have an appointment in the UK? 

A. In any situation, you should call to inform your lateness and offer an apology later. 

B. Whenever you have an appointment, you should come at least five minutes before your meeting. 

C. You should depend on each situation or meeting to behave correctly. 

D. You should ask your host or employer whether you can come late. 

Question 19. What does the word “That way” in the last paragraph refer to? 

A. You ring your host and let them know how late you might be. 

B. You arrive exactly on time for a dinner party. 

C. You will have a bit of wiggle room. 

D. Your host will serve their guests a pre-dinner drink. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 20. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans. 

A. married     B. separated C. single        D. divorced 

Question 21. Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate more in the future. 

A. voice opinions on

B. find favor with 

C. express disapproval of 

D. resolve a conflict over 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 22. “How beautiful you are today!” he said. 

A. He said to me that she was beautiful that day. 

B. He complimented her on being beautiful that day. 

C. He complimented her on being beautiful today. 

D. He complemented her on being beautiful that day 

Question 23. If you want to be kept informed about current affairs you should listen to the radio. 

A. Only by listening to the radio, you can keep yourself informed about current affairs. 

B. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs 

C. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio. 

D. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs. 

Question 24. We got wet yesterday because we didn’t remember to bring our raincoats. 

A. We would get wet yesterday if we didn’t remember to bring our raincoats. 

B. If we remembered to bring our raincoats, we wouldn’t get wet yesterday. 

C. If we had remembered to bring our raincoats, we wouldn’t get wet yesterday. 

D. If we had remembered to bring our raincoats, we wouldn’t have got wet yesterday. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following exchanges. 

Question 25. Recently, the island of Hawaii ________ the subject of intensive research on the occurrence of earthquakes. 

A. has having            B. have been C. had been   D. has been 

Question 26. Students are _______ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures. 

A. above        B. out of         C. upon          D. under 

Question 27. Joseph R. Biden Jr. was elected the 46th president of the United States. He defeated President Trump after winning Pennsylvania, which put his total of Electoral College votes above the 270 he needed _______ the presidency. 

A. won           B. to win        C. winning     D. wins  

Question 28. Switching to ________ light bulb is one way to protect the environment. 

A. energy-expending

B. energy-wasting 

C. energy-saving

D. energy-lacking 

Question 29. It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species decline, habitat ______ is the leading threat. 

A. destroy      B. destructor C. destruction           D. destructive 

Question 30. __________ charge for excess luggage is £10 ________ kilo. 

A. X/ the        B. The/ a        C. X/ X          D. X/ a 

—(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 4 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)— 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1-B

2-D

3-C

4-A

5-D

6-C

7-A

8-C

9-B

10-B

11-D

12-D

13-C

14-C

15-D

16-C

17-A

18-C

19-A

20-A

21-C

22-B

23-B

24-D

25-D

26-D

27-B

28-C

29-C

30-B

31-D

32-B

33-A

34-A

35-B

36-C

37-A

38-D

39-C

40-D

41-A

42-C

43-B

44-D

45-A

46-A

47-B

48-A

49-C

50-D

5. Đề số 5

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 1 to 3 

Question 1: They believe that burning fossil fuels is the main cause of air pollution. 

A. Burning fossil fuels is believed to have caused high levels of air pollution. 

B. It is believed that air pollution is mainly to blame for burning fossil fuels. 

C. Burning fossil fuels is believed to result from air pollution. 

D. It is believed that burning fossil fuels is held responsible for air pollution. 

Question 2: “I haven’t been very open-minded,” said the manager. 

A. The manager denied having been very open-minded. 

B. The manager refused to have been very open-minded. 

C. The manager admitted not having been very open-minded. 

D. The manager promised to be very open-minded. 

Question 3: Peter used to work as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

A. Peter has stopped working as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

B. Peter no longer likes the job as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

C. Peter enjoyed working as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

D. Peter refused to work as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 4 to 5 

Question 4: A. liberty         B. reliable      C. revival       D. final 

Question 5: A. raised          B. developed  C. influenced            D. introduced 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges from 6 to 7 

Question 6: John: ” You’re already leaving? The ball is only starting.” 

– Peter: ” But it’s very late, so __________.” 

A. It’s great fun, thanks

B. Take care 

C. Goodbye for now

D. Have a good day 

Question 7: John: “Why don’t we go to a baseball game?”. 

– Jimmy: “_____________”. 

A. No, thanks. I’d like to sit here

B. I’d rather go to the art gallery 

C. It’s good to play baseball

D. No, I don’t. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair sentences in the following questions from 8 to 9 

Question 8: Beef contains vitamins. Generally, fish contains almost the same vitamins as beef. 

A. Generally, beef and fish may be considered to be a combination of vitamin content. 

B. What vitamin fish contains may be considered in general to be made from beef. 

C. The vitamins content of fish may be considered in general as similar to beef. 

D. The vitamins content of beef is generally considered to come from fish. 

Question 9: The man was shot in the bank robbery. The doctors are operating on him. 

A. The man was whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery. 

B. The man was shot in the bank robbery where the doctors are operating on him. 

C. The doctors are operating on the man who was shot in the bank robbery. 

D. The man whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the bolded part in each of the following questions from 10 to 11 

Question 10: He didn’t bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam again. 

A. showed surprise

B. didn’t care 

C. didn’t want to see

D. wasn’t happy 

Question 11: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have academic or personal problems. 

A. please        B. sympathize           C. discourage            D. satisfy 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 12 to 26 

Question 12: – “Are you thinking of flying business class?” – “_____________.” 

A. No, I’d like an aisle seat.

B. I’m flying there to attend a party 

C. No, I’m just on business.

D. No, economy. 

Question 13: If you watch this film, you ________ about the cultures of Southeast Asian countries. 

A. would learn          B. will learn   C. were learning       D. learned 

Question 14: Paul noticed a job advertisement while he __________ along the street. 

A. would walk          B. had walked           C. walked      D. was walking 

Question 15: Solar energy is not widely used ___________ it is friendly to the environment. 

A. in spite of  B. since          C. although    D. because of 

Question 16: The sign warns people ________ the dangers of swimming in this river. 

A. about         B. with           C. from          D. to 

Question 17: _________, they were surprised to find their favourite band playing there. 

A. To have attended the party

B. Just attended the party 

C. On arrival at the party

D. They had arrived at the party 

Question 18: Drinking too much alcohol is said to __________ harm to our health. 

A. take            B. lead            C. make         D. do 

Question 19: At the end of the training course, each participant was presented with a ________ of completion. 

A. diploma     B. certificate  C. degree       D. qualification 

Question 20: The _______ high levels of pollution in the coastal areas are a matter of great concern to the government. 

A. marginally            B. excessively           C. redundantly          D. intensively 

Question 21: Event organisers should plan everything carefully so as to leave nothing to _________.

A. opportunity          B. possibility             C. mistake     D. chance 

Question 22: The woman ________ when the police told her that her son had died. 

A. broke in    B. broke down          C. broke into             D. broke away 

Question 23: __________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes. 

A. Intelligent as the boy was

B. Intelligent as was the boy 

C. As the boy was intelligent

D. As intelligent the boy was 

Question 24: My friend always dreams of having __________.

A. red sleeping small a bag.

B. a small red sleeping bag. 

C. a bad small red sleeping.

D. small a bag red sleeping. 

Question 25: David graddol, a British linguist, believes that English _________ 80% of computer-based communication in the 1990s. 

A. took up      B. made over             C. answered for        D. accounted for. 

Question 26: ________ every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition. 

A. Having won         B. Winning    C. When he won       D. On winning 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 27 to 28 

Question 27: A. answer          B. cartoon C. open          D. paper 

Question 28: A. knowledgeable   B. prosperity C. development        D. certificate 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from from 29 to 33 

Urbanization programs are being carried out in many parts of the world, especially in densely (29) ______ regions with limited land and resources. It is the natural outcome of economic development and industrialization. It has brought a lot of benefits to our society. However, it also (30) ________ various problems for local authorities and town planners in the process of maintaining sustainable urbanization, especially in developing countries. 

When too many people cram into a small area, urban infrastructure can’t be effective. There will be a (31) ________ of livable housing, energy and water supply. This will create overcrowded urban districts with no proper facilities. Currently, fast urbanization is taking place predominantly in developing countries where sustainable urbanization has little relevance to people’s lives. Their houses are just shabby slums with poor sanitation. Their children only manage to get basic education. Hence, the struggle for (32) _________ is their first priority rather than anything else. Only when the quality of their existence is improved, can they seek (33) ________ other high values in their life. 

—(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 5 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)— 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1-D

2-C

3-A

4-A

5-A

6-C

7-B

8-C

9-C

10-A

11-C

12-D

13-B

14-D

15-C

16-A

17-C

18-D

19-B

20-B

21-B

22-B

23-A

24-B

25-A

26-A

27-B

28-A

29-D

30-B

31-1

32-C

33-C

34-B

35-A

36-B

37-D

38-D

39-D

40-D

41-B

42-D

43-B

44-C

45-D

46-C

47-B

48-C

49-B

50-A

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Lê Quý Đôn. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

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Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Lê Quý Đôn

Tài liệu Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Lê Quý Đôn được HOC247 biên tập và tổng hợp và giới thiệu đến các em học sinh lớp 12, với phần đề và đáp án, lời giải chi tiết giúp các em rèn luyện ôn tập chuẩn bị cho kì thi THPT Quốc Gia sắp tới. Hi vọng tài liệu này sẽ có ích cho các em, chúc các em có kết quả học tập tốt!

TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021 – 2022

Môn TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

1. Đề số 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. easy            B. sea               C. learn              D. eat

Question 2: A. park            B. yard              C. card               D. carry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. community  B. particular        C. mathematics                 D. authority

Question 4: A. explanation B. experiment     C. accomplishment            D. discovery

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: If you want to borrow my car, promise to drive careful.

Question 6: It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure.

Question 7: Paris has been well-known about its famous monuments, beautiful music, and wonderful restaurants for over 100 years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: I don’t agree with……………… very young and pretty criminals

A. committing       B. enforcing     C. imprisoning                   D. offending

Question 9: What beautiful eyes………………!

A. does she have               B. she has     C. has she         D. she doesn’t have

Question 10: ……………… long, I’m sure you will be speaking English……………… a native speaker.

A. After/ like       B. Before/ like            C. After/ for      D. Before/ for

Question 11: He’s left his book at home; he’s always so………………

A. forgetful   B. forgettable           C. forgotten                D. forgetting

Question 12: We are going to build a fence around the field with ………………  to breeding sheep and cattle

A. a goal       B. an outlook                 C. a reason                        D. a view

Question 13: The meeting didn’t……………… until late.

A. end up                 B. break up        C. come about                   D. fall through

Question 14: Fiona is very angry ……………… her boss’s decision to sack several members of staff.

A. against       B. by     C. for            D. about

Question 15: Media reports on the outcome of military intervention often…………….. the true facts.

A. divert         B. detract       C. depose          D. distort

Question 16: He hurried ……………… he wouldn’t be late for class.

A. since          B. as if           C. unless          D. so that

Question 17: When his parents are away, his oldest brother………………

A. knocks it off     B. calls the shots    C. draws the line   D. is in the same boat

Question 18: If he had been more careful, he………………

A. won’t fall         B. wouldn’t fall       C. wouldn’t have fallen    D. would have fallen

Question 19: We should participate in the movements ……………… the natural environment.

A. organizing to conserve

B. organized conserving

C. which organize to conserve

D. organized to conserve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Jenny: “Thank you very much for your donation, Mr. Robinson.”

– Mr. Robinson: “………………………………”

A. You can say that again

B. I see

C. You are right

D. Delighted I was able to help

Question 21: John: “Well it was nice talking to you, but I have to dash.”

Jane: “……………………………… ”

A. Well, another time

B. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you, too

C. OK, see you

D. That’s nice

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: I am glad I was able to be there for my friend when her mom died..

A. to offer support in time of need for

B. to cry with

C. to travel with

D. to visit

Question 23: The sign indicates the correct direction to the store.

A. looks        B. shows         C. says       D. needs

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: It is relatively easy to identify the symptoms of the peculiar disease.

A. evidently       B. absolutely           C. comparatively               D. obviously

Question 25: When you consider all the advantages you’ve gained I think you’ll admit you had a good run for your money.

A. a lot of loss from your money

B. a lot of benefits from your money

C. a lot of advantages from your money

D. a lot of failures in making your money

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: I whispered as I didn’t want anybody to hear our conversation.

A. So as not to hear our conversation I whispered.

B. Since nobody wanted to hear our conversation I whispered.

C. Because I whispered, nobody heard our conversation.

D. I lowered my voice in order that our conversation couldn’t be heard.

Question 27: Though he tried hard, he didn’t succeed.

A. However he tried hard, he didn’t succeed.

B. However hard he tried, he didn’t succeed.

C. However he didn’t succeed hard, he tried hard.

D. However he tried hard, but he didn’t succeed.

Question 28: “If you keep eating so much fat, you’ll gain weight.” said his mother.

A. His mother suggested him gaining weight if he kept eating so much fat.

B. His mother warned him that he would gain weight if he kept eating so much fat.

C. His mother threatened him to gain weight if he kept eating so much fat

D. His mother complained about his gaining weight if he kept eating so much fat.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.

A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.

B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

Question 30: Crazianna is a big country. Unfortunately, it has never received respect from its neighbours.

A. Though Crazianna is a big country, it has never received respect from its neighbours.

B. Crazianna has never received respect from its neighbours because it is a big country.

C. It is Crazianna, a big country, that has never received respect from its neighbours.

D. Crazianna is such a big country that it has never received respect from its neighbours.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that bestfits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

How men first learnt to (31) ……………… words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a mystery. All we really know is that men, unlike animals, (32) ……………… invented certain sounds to express thoughts and feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and  that later they agreed (33) ……………… certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, whetherspoken or written in letters, are called words.

Great writers are those who not only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that

(34) ……………… powerfully to our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call literary style. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. He can convey his meaning in words which sing like music, and which by their position and association can (35) ……………… men to tears. We should, therefore, learn to choose our words carefully, or they will make our speech silly and vulgar.

Question 31: A. invent

B. create

C. make

D. discover

Question 32: A. whatever

B. however

C. somewhat

D. somehow

Question 33: A. at

B. upon

C. for

D. in

Question 34: A. interest

B. appeal

C. attract

D. lure

Question 35: A. take

B. send

C. break

D. move

 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

THE DIGITAL DIVIDE

Information technology is influencing the way many of us live and work today. We use the Internet to look and apply for jobs, shop, conduct research, make airline reservations, and explore areas of interest. We use e-mail and the Internet to communicate instantaneously with friends and business associates around the world. Computers are commonplace in homes and the workplace.

Although the number of Internet users is growing exponentially each year, most of the world’s population does not have access to computers or the Internet. Only 6 percent of the population in developing countries are connected to telephones. Although more than 94 percent of U.S. households have a telephone, only 42 percent have personal computers at home and 26 percent have Internet access. The lack of what most of us would consider a basic communications necessity -the telephone -does not occur just in developing nations. On some Native American reservations only 60 percent of the residents have a telephone. The move to wireless connections may eliminate the need for telephone lines, but it does not remove the barrier to equipment costs.

Who has Internet  access?  Fifty  percent  of  the children in urban  households  with  an     income  over $75,000 have Internet access, compared with 2 percent ofthe children in low-income, rural households. Nearly half of college-educated people have Internet access, compared to 6 percent of those with only some high school education. Forty percent of households with two parents have access; 15 percent of female, single-parent households do. Thirty percent of white households, 11 percent of black households, and 13 percent of Hispanic households have access. Teens and children are the two fastest-growing segments of Internet users. The digital divide between the populations who have access to the Internet and information technology tools is based on income, race, education, household type, and geographic location. Only 16 percent of the rural poor, rural and central city minorities, young householders, and single parent female households are connected.

Another problem that exacerbates these disparities is that African-Americans, Hispanics, and Native Americans hold few of the jobs in information technology. Women hold about 20 percent of these jobs and are receiving fewer than 30 percent of the computer science degrees. The result is that women and members of the most oppressed ethnic groups are not eligible for the jobs with the highest salaries at graduation. Baccalaureate candidates with degrees in computer science were offered the highest salaries  of all new college graduates in 1998 at $44,949.

Do similar disparities exist in schools? More than 90 percent of all schools in the country are wired with at least one Internet connection. The number of classrooms with Internet connections differs by the income level of students. Using the percentage of students who are eligible for free lunches at a school to determine income level, we see that nearly twice as many of the schools with more affluent students have wired classrooms as those with high concentrations of low-income students.

Access to computers and the Internet will be important in reducing disparities between groups. It will require greater equality across diverse groups whose members develop knowledge and skills in computer and information technologies. If computers and the Internet are to be used to promote equality, they will have to become accessible to populations that cannot currently afford the equipment which needs to be updated every three years or so. However, access alone is not enough. Students will have to be interacting with the technology in authentic settings. As technology becomes a tool for learning in almost all  courses taken by students, it will be seen as a means to an end rather than an end in itself. If it is used in culturally relevant ways, all students can benefit from its power.

Question 36: Why does the author mention the telephone in paragraph 2?

A. To contrast the absence of telephone usage with that of Internet usage

B. To describe the development of communications from telephone to Internet

C. To demonstrate that even technology like the telephone is not available to all

D. To argue that basic telephone service is a first step to using the Internet

Question 37: Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the statement “Although the number ……………… or the Internet.” in the paragraph 2?

The number of computers that can make the Internet available to most of the people in the world is not increasing fast enough.

The Internet is available to most of the people in the world, even though they don’t have their own computer terminals.

C. Most of the people in the world use the Internet now because the number of computers has been increasing every year.

The number of people who use computers and the Internet is increasing every year, but most people in the world still do not have connections.

Question 38: Based on information in paragraph 3, which of the following best explains the term “digital divide?”

A. The disparity in the opportunity to use the Internet

B. Differences in socioeconomic levels among Internet users

C. The number of Internet users in developing nations

D. Segments of the population with Internet access

Question 39: Why does the author give details about the percentages of Internet users in paragraph 3?

A. To argue for more Internet connections at all levels of society

B. To suggest that improvements in Internet access are beginning to take place

C. To prove that there are differences in opportunities among social groups

D. To explain why many people have Internet connections now

Question 40: According to paragraph 4, why are fewer women and minorities employed in the field of computer technology?

A. They do not have an interest in technology.

B. They prefer training for jobs with higher salaries.

C. They are not admitted to the degree programs.

D. They do not possess the educational qualifications.

Question 41: The word “concentrations” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. confidence                    B. protections                    C. numbers         D. support

Question 42: What can be inferred from paragraph 6 about Internet access?

A. The cost of replacing equipment is a problem.

B. Technology will be more helpful in three years.

C. Better computers need to be designed.

D. Schools should provide newer computers for students.

*Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a jointly cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation, based on group organization and attitudes.

In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group contains nearly all of each individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with each member. There is an interlocking identity of individual, group and task performed. Means and goals become one, for cooperation itself is valued.

While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterature societies, secondary cooperation is characteristic of many modem societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most members of the group feel loyalty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration. Members perform tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the form of salary, prestige, or power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are examples of secondary cooperation.

In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies the shared  work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization is loose and fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goals: it breaks down when the common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is not, strictly speaking, cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term antagonistic cooperation is sometimes used for this relationship.

Question 43: What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage?

A. To offer a brief definition of cooperation

B. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict

C. To urge readers to cooperate more often

D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes

Question 44: The word cherished in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to………………

A. agreed on                      B. prized                           C. defined                         D. set up

Question 45: Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by information in the passage?

A. It is an ideal that can never be achieved

B. It was confined to prehistoric times

C. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to cooperate

D. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing skills

Question 46: According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary cooperation?

A. To get rewards for themselves

B. To defeat a common enemy

C. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation

D. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds

Question 47: Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is defined in the fourth paragraph?

A. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow

B. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party

C. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades

D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company

Question 48: Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of cooperation?

A. Accommodation

B. Latent conflict

C. Tertiary cooperation

D. Antagonistic cooperation

Question 49: The word fragile in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

A. poorly planned             B. involuntary                   C. inefficient                     D. easily broken

Question 50: Which of the following best describes the overall organization of the passage?

A. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic

B. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relations

C. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms

D. The author provides a number of concrete examples and then draws a conclusion

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1.C

2.D

3.C

4.A

5.D

6.A

7.B

8.C

9.B

10.B

11.A

12.D

13.B

14.D

15.D

16.D

17.B

18.C

19.D

20.D

21.C

22.A

23.B

24.B

25.A

26.D

27.B

28.B

29.D

30.A

31.A

32.D

33.B

34.B

35.D

36.C

37.D

38.A

39.C

40.D

41.C

42.A

43.A

44.B

45.D

46.A

47.B

48.B

49.D

50.C

2. Đề số 2

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Câu 1 (NB): A. interact     B. understand     C. volunteer   D. contribute 

Câu 2 (NB): A. maintain    B. perform          C. prefer        D. offer 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Câu 3 (NB): A. cleaned     B. looked       C. climbed     D. enjoyed 

Câu 4 (NB): A. lake           B. play           C. shape        D. many 

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 5 (TH): At first, John said he hadn’t broken the vase, but later he accepted it. 

A. denied       B. discussed C. protected D. admitted 

Câu 6 (TH): An indecisive commander is unlikely to win the confidence of his men. 

A. slow           B. determined           C. hesitant     D. reliant 

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 7 (TH): My kids only have a faint memory of our hometown as they have lived away from it for a long time. 

A. poor           B. clear           C. quick         D. vague 

Câu 8 (VDC): When I suggested he was mistaken, John got hot under the collar and stormed out of the room. 

A. got emotional       B. became furious    C. remained calm     D. felt anxious 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Câu 9 (TH): The teacher demanded that the classroom _____ cleaned immediately. 

A. is    B. be   C. are D. was 

Câu 10 (TH): As soon as I _____, I’m going to return to my hometown. 

A. have graduated    B. will graduate        C. will have graduated         D. am going to graduate 

Câu 11 (TH): The captain is the last person ______ the sinking ship. 

A. leaving      B. to leave     C. that leave D. leaves 

Câu 12 (TH): I hope the new year will bring you _____, health and prosperity. 

A. success      B. succeed     C. successful             D. successfully 

Câu 13 (NB): If you work hard, you _____ pass the exam. 

A. will            B. won’t         C. would        D. wouldn’t 

Câu 14 (TH): When Tom _____ yesterday, I _____ the washing up in the kitchen. 

A. called – did           B. called – was doing           C. was calling – did D. was calling – was doing 

Câu 15 (TH): She always said that when she grew up, she wanted to be _____ doctor. 

A. an   B. a     C. the D. x 

Câu 16 (TH): _____ the sky was grey and cloudy, we went to the beach. 

A. Because    B. Although   C. Despite      D. Because of 

Câu 17 (VD): _____ is not clear to researchers. 

A. Did dinosaurs become extinct

B. Why dinosaurs having become extinct

C. Dinosaurs became extinct

D. Why dinosaurs became extinct 

Câu 18 (VD): He tried to ______ himself with everyone by paying then compliments. 

A. gratify       B. please        C. ingratiate D. commend 

Câu 19 (TH): I think there’s a picture of the hotel _____ the first page. 

A. on B. at    C. in   D. of 

Câu 20 (VD): The smell was so bad that it completely _____ us off our food. 

A. set B. took           C. got D. put 

Câu 21 (VDC): I won’t buy that car because it has too much _____ on it. 

A. ups and downs     B. odds and ends      C. wear and tear       D. white lie 

Câu 22 (VD): I had a red _____ day yesterday. 

A. tape            B. wood         C. pepper       D. letter 

Câu 23 (TH): You ___ have eaten the mushrooms if you were not sure. 

A. should       B. shouldn’t C. would        D. could 

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Câu 24 (TH): Jenny and Kathy are arranging to see a new film.

– Jenny: “Why don’t you come over and see the new film with me?”

– Kathy: “________” 

A. Great, I’d love to.

B. Oh, I’m afraid so. 

C. You’re welcome.

D. Wow! You didn’t realize that. 

Câu 25 (TH): Helen and Sarah are talking about their school’s field trip.

– Helen: “This is the best field trip we’ve ever had”.

– Sarah: “________. Everyone enjoyed it to the fullest.” 

A. I don’t think that’s a good idea

B. I totally disagree 

C. You’re right

D. Never mind 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks 

Our position in the family is one of the factors (26)_________ strongly affect our personality. The eldest or first-born children get maximum (27) _________ from their parents and the result is that they are usually self-confident and ambitious people. Firstborns are also responsible because they often have to look after their younger brothers or sisters. (28) _________, they can be quite bossy and dominant as they often give orders and are fearful of losing position. Middle children are usually sociable since they have other children to play with. They are good at peacemaking and compromising. Yet, on the negative side, (29) _________ children can be jealous and moody ones. The youngest in a family is probably quite a relaxed person and some are often lazy. This is because they always have someone in the family to help them. Yet, they are charming and (30) _________, have a good sense of humor and know how to manipulate others when they want to get their way.

—(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 2 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)— 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1-D

2-D

3-B

4-D

5-D

6-C

7-B

8-C

9-B

10-A

11-B

12-A

13-A

14-B

15-B

16-B

17-D

18-C

19-A

20-D

21-C

22-D

23-B

24-A

25-C

26-A

27-B

28-D

29-B

30-C

31-B

32-A

33-B

34-C

35-B

36-D

37-C

38-A

39-C

40-A

41-C

42-D

43-B

44-D

45-A

46-A

47-B

48-A

49-C

50-A

3. Đề số 3

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 1. Copper is the favored metal for electricians’ wire because of _________. 

A. its excellent conductivity

B. it is excellent conductor  

C. excellent conductivity of it

D. so conductive is it 

Question 2. We all congratulated Lisa _________ winning the first prize.  

A. for                         B. about         C. with                       D. on 

Question 3. In 1959, the political philosopher Hannah Arendt became the first women _________ a full professor at Princeton University.  

А. to appoint B. to be appointed    C. was appointed      D. who be appointed as

Question 4. They decided to _________ their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.  

A. take up      B. turn round             C. put off       D. do with  

Question 5. _________, we had already put out the fire.  

A. Until the firemen arrives to help

B. No sooner had the firemen arrived to help  

C. By the time the firemen arrived to help

D. After the firemen have arrived to help

Question 6. The course was so difficult that I didn’t _________ any progress at all.  

A. make         B. do   C. produce     D. create 

Question 7. No sooner _________ the comer than the wheel came off.  

A. the van turned

B. had the van turned  

C. did the van turn

D. the van had turned

Question 8. The clown was wearing a _________ wig and red nose.  

A. red funny plastic

B. funny red plastic

C. funny plastic red

D. red plastic funny 

Question 9. I like that photo very much. Could you make an _________ for me?  

A. exploration           B. enlargement          C. extension D. expansion 

Question 10. Failing to submit the proposal on time was _________ for Tom.  

A. a real kick in the pants

B. an open and shut case  

C. a shot in the dark

D. a mail in the coffin 

Question 11. In state schools, students have to follow a National _________ specified by the Ministry of Education and Training.  

A. Subject      B. Curriculum           C. Program    D. Obligation

Question 12. It is said the Robinhood robbed _________ rich und gave the money to _________ poor.  

A. a/ a             B. a/ the          C. the/ the      D. the/ a  

Question 13. The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new _________ it made in the 1990s.  

A. or   B. because     C. however    D. Although 

Question 14. _________ no one was absent from the farewell party last night.  

A. Though it rains heavily

B. As it rained heavily  

C. In spite of heavily rain

D. Heavily as it rained 

Question 15. Larry was so _________ in his novel that he forgot about his dinner cooking in the oven.  

A. absorbed   B. obliged      C. drawn        D. attracted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 16. A. announced           B. enjoyed     C. scored       D. sponsored

Question 17. A. polite         B. advice        C. diploma     D. pilot 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 18. A. assistance B. appearance           C. position     D. confidence

Question 19. A. lecture       B. figure         C. wonder      D. inspire

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 20. Neither the clerks nor the department manager are being considered for promotions this time. 

A. nor             B. department           C. are D. for promotions 

Question 21. Passing a driver’s test is a necessity requirement for all people wishing to drive a motor vehicle. 

A. Passing      B. necessity   C. wishing     D. to drive  

Question 22. ASEAN aims at promoting economic growth, regional peace as well as provide opportunities for its members. 

A. aims at      B. economic growth             C. provide     D. its

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 23. Be a smart shopper, choose your seafood responsibly.  

A. tidy            B. stupid        C. soft            D. weak

Question 24. Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate more in the future.  

A. resolve a conflict over

B. express disapproval of  

C. find favor with

D. voice opinions on 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. 

Question 25. Teenagers can become addicted to social networking if they can’t control they spend online.  

A. indifferent to        B. dependent on        C. exhausted by        D. hooked on

Question 26. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot of prize.  

A. ability        B. advantage C. difficulty D. barrier 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 27. I’m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.  

A. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.  

B. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.  

C. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam. 

D. Luisa may he very disappointed when she failed the exam. 

Question 28. The weather was very hot. The boys continued playing football in the schoolyard.  

A. Despite the weather was hot, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard  

B. An spite of the hot weather, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard  

C. Because the hot weather, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard  

D. Because of the weather was hot, the boys continued playing football in the schoolyard.

Question 29. People think the Samba is the most popular dance in Brazil.  

A. It is thought that the Samba is among the most popular dances in Brazil.  

B. It is thought that the Samba was the most popular dance in Brazil. 

C. The Sumba is thought to be the most popular dance in Brazil.  

D. In Brawl the Samba is thought to be one of the most popular dances. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

—(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 3 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)— 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SÓ 3

1-A

2-D

3-B

4-C

5-C

6-A

7-B

8-B

9-B

10-D

11-B

12-C

13-D

14-D

15-A

16-A

17-C

18-D

19-D

20-C

21-B

22-C

23-B

24-B

25-B

26-C

27-C

28-B

29-C

30-B

31-A

32-C

33-C

34-A

35-D

36-D

37-D

38-A

39-A

40-C

41-C

42-C

43-A

44-D

45-B

46-B

47-C

48-D

49-A

50-B

4. Đề số 4

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 1. The guest of honors, along with his wife and children, were sitting at the first table when we had a party yesterday. 

A. his wife     B. were           C. at    D. when 

Question 2. To show the different ideas about love and marriage, a survey was conducted in American, Chinese and Indian students. 

A. To show    B. about         C. a survey    D. conducted in 

Question 3. We received a SOS signal appearing right here in this city, please connect the support team there immediately. 

A. a SOS        B. appearing  C. connect     D. there 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. 

Question 4. People have used coal and oil to generate electricity for a long time. 

A. make         B. prevent      C. create        D. invent 

Question 5. School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools. 

A. paid           B. divided      C. depended D. required 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 6. Farmers depend on meteorologists. They need meteorologists’ accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning. 

A. Due to meteorologists’ accurate forecasts, farmers depend on them for successful agricultural planning. 

B. Farmers depend on meteorologists who need their accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning. 

C. Farmers depend on meteorologists, whose accurate forecasts they need for successful agricultural planning.

D. Farmers need meteorologists’ accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning and so they depend on you. 

Question 7. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the talk show. 

A. Provided you do not get nervous, the talk show won’t go badly for you. 

B. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the talk show. 

C. Talk shows are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm. 

D. Even if you are afraid of the talk show, it is important not to express it. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

SCIENTIFIC DISCOVERIES

A satellite is best understood as a projectile, or an object that has only one force acting on gravity. Technically speaking, anything that crosses the Karman Line at an altitude of kilometers (62 miles) is considered in space. However, a satellite needs to be going fast — at least 8 km (5 miles) a second – to stop from falling back down to Earth immediately. 

If a satellite is traveling fast enough, it will perpetually “fall” toward Earth, but the Earth’s curvature means that the satellite will fall around our planet instead of crashing back on the surface. Satellites that travel closer to Earth are at risk of falling because the drag of atmospheric molecules will slow the satellites down. Those that orbit farther away from Earth have fewer molecules to contend with. 

There are several accepted “zones” of orbits around the Earth. One is called low-Earth-orbit, which extends from about 160 to 2,000 km (about 100 to 1,250 miles). This is the zone where the ISS orbits and where the space shuttle used to do its work. In fact, all human missions except for the Apollo flights to the moon took place in this zone. Most satellites also work in this zone. 

Geostationary or geosynchronous orbit is the best spot for communications satellites to use, however. This is a zone above Earth’s equator at an altitude of 35,786 km (22,236 mi). At this altitude, the rate of “fall” around the Earth is about the same as Earth’s rotation, which allows the satellite to stay above the same spot on Earth almost constantly. The satellite thus keeps a perpetual connection with a fixed antenna on the ground, allowing for reliable communications. When geostationary satellites reach the end of their life, protocol dictates they’re moved out of the way for a new satellite to take their place. That’s because there is only so much room, or so many “slots” in that orbit, to allow the satellites to operate without interference. 

While some satellites are best used around the equator, others are better suited to more polar orbits – those that circle the Earth from pole to pole so that their coverage zones include the north and south poles. Examples of polar-orbiting satellites include weather satellites and reconnaissance satellites. 

(Source: https://www.space.com/24839-satellites.html) 

Question 8. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? 

A. Parts of a satellite 

B. Moons around other worlds 

C. What keeps a satellite from falling to Earth? 

D. What stops a satellite from crashing into another satellite? 

Question 9. Which of the following best summaries paragraph 5? 

A. All satellites circle the Earth from pole to pole. 

B. Orbit of satellites depends on their coverage zones and using purpose. 

C. Satellites are best used around the equator. 

D. Satellites include weather satellites and reconnaissance satellites. 

Question 10. Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 4 as an element that makes a satellite stay above the same spot on Earth? 

A. Geostationary or geosynchronous orbit

B. Earth’s rotation 

C. The zone above Earth’s equator

D. The rate of “fall” around the Earth 

Question 11. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? 

A. satellite needs to be going fast – at least 8 km (5 miles) a second. 

B. Satellites that travel closer to Earth contend with drag of more atmospheric molecules. 

C. Satellites keep a perpetual connection with a fixed antenna on the ground 

D. The Apollo flights to the moon took place in low-Earth-orbit, which extends from about 160 to 2,000 km (about 100 to 1,250 miles). 

Question 12. The word “perpetually” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________. 

A. gradually B. quickly      C. technically           D. continuously 

Question 13. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the reason why satellites move out of the way? 

A. They takes too much room.

B. There are not enough “slots” for them. 

C. They fail to operate without interference.

D. They reaches the end of their life. 

Question 14. The word “Those” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.

A. planet        B. surfaces     C. satellites   D. molecules 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

The British are particular about timings and being late is frowned upon, but being on time is a complicated matter because in some situations, being a few minutes early on others means being exactly on time and in some instances, it is completely acceptable to arrive 10 minutes to a few hours later than the stated time. This can be a minefield for someone who is new to the UK, so here are some basic rules that will help you get your timing right whatever the situation. 

In formal meetings, such as job interviews, you should arrive at least five minutes before your meeting. This will give you time to compose yourself before your big meeting. In the UK, arriving late for a formal meeting is seen as unprofessional and will reflect badly on you. If you are running late, ring your host to let them know you will be late. On arrival, apologize sincerely and offer a reason for your lateness, such as you got lost or the train was delayed. It will help you redeem yourself. However, if you are late because you set off later than you should have, it’s wise to keep that to yourself! 

If you have been invited to a dinner party, you should arrive exactly on time as the host will have planned when they will serve the food. You will find that your host will serve their guests a pre-dinner drink, so that gives you a bit of wiggle room, but if you are running later than 10 minutes, you should ring your host and let them know how late you might be. That way they can decide whether to go ahead and serve the other guests. When you arrive you should offer the host and the other guests your apology for being late. 

(Source: https://www.oxfordinternationalenglish.com/) 

Question 15. What is the author’s main purpose in the passage? 

A. To prove that the British are strict about timings 

B. To explain what readers should do if they are late in the UK 

C. To persuade readers to be on time in any situation in the UK 

D. To provide readers some primary regulations so that they will be on time in the UK 

Question 16. According to the second paragraph, what kind of reasons should you offer come late for a job interview? 

A. careless     B. subjective C. objective   D. neglectful 

Question 17. The word “compose” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________. 

A. keep calm             B. compile     C. create        D. comprise 

Question 18. What is the best advice when you have an appointment in the UK? 

A. In any situation, you should call to inform your lateness and offer an apology later. 

B. Whenever you have an appointment, you should come at least five minutes before your meeting. 

C. You should depend on each situation or meeting to behave correctly. 

D. You should ask your host or employer whether you can come late. 

Question 19. What does the word “That way” in the last paragraph refer to? 

A. You ring your host and let them know how late you might be. 

B. You arrive exactly on time for a dinner party. 

C. You will have a bit of wiggle room. 

D. Your host will serve their guests a pre-dinner drink. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 20. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans. 

A. married     B. separated C. single        D. divorced 

Question 21. Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate more in the future. 

A. voice opinions on

B. find favor with 

C. express disapproval of 

D. resolve a conflict over 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 22. “How beautiful you are today!” he said. 

A. He said to me that she was beautiful that day. 

B. He complimented her on being beautiful that day. 

C. He complimented her on being beautiful today. 

D. He complemented her on being beautiful that day 

Question 23. If you want to be kept informed about current affairs you should listen to the radio. 

A. Only by listening to the radio, you can keep yourself informed about current affairs. 

B. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs 

C. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio. 

D. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs. 

Question 24. We got wet yesterday because we didn’t remember to bring our raincoats. 

A. We would get wet yesterday if we didn’t remember to bring our raincoats. 

B. If we remembered to bring our raincoats, we wouldn’t get wet yesterday. 

C. If we had remembered to bring our raincoats, we wouldn’t get wet yesterday. 

D. If we had remembered to bring our raincoats, we wouldn’t have got wet yesterday. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following exchanges. 

Question 25. Recently, the island of Hawaii ________ the subject of intensive research on the occurrence of earthquakes. 

A. has having            B. have been C. had been   D. has been 

Question 26. Students are _______ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures. 

A. above        B. out of         C. upon          D. under 

Question 27. Joseph R. Biden Jr. was elected the 46th president of the United States. He defeated President Trump after winning Pennsylvania, which put his total of Electoral College votes above the 270 he needed _______ the presidency. 

A. won           B. to win        C. winning     D. wins  

Question 28. Switching to ________ light bulb is one way to protect the environment. 

A. energy-expending

B. energy-wasting 

C. energy-saving

D. energy-lacking 

Question 29. It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species decline, habitat ______ is the leading threat. 

A. destroy      B. destructor C. destruction           D. destructive 

Question 30. __________ charge for excess luggage is £10 ________ kilo. 

A. X/ the        B. The/ a        C. X/ X          D. X/ a 

—(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 4 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)— 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1-B

2-D

3-C

4-A

5-D

6-C

7-A

8-C

9-B

10-B

11-D

12-D

13-C

14-C

15-D

16-C

17-A

18-C

19-A

20-A

21-C

22-B

23-B

24-D

25-D

26-D

27-B

28-C

29-C

30-B

31-D

32-B

33-A

34-A

35-B

36-C

37-A

38-D

39-C

40-D

41-A

42-C

43-B

44-D

45-A

46-A

47-B

48-A

49-C

50-D

5. Đề số 5

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 1 to 3 

Question 1: They believe that burning fossil fuels is the main cause of air pollution. 

A. Burning fossil fuels is believed to have caused high levels of air pollution. 

B. It is believed that air pollution is mainly to blame for burning fossil fuels. 

C. Burning fossil fuels is believed to result from air pollution. 

D. It is believed that burning fossil fuels is held responsible for air pollution. 

Question 2: “I haven’t been very open-minded,” said the manager. 

A. The manager denied having been very open-minded. 

B. The manager refused to have been very open-minded. 

C. The manager admitted not having been very open-minded. 

D. The manager promised to be very open-minded. 

Question 3: Peter used to work as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

A. Peter has stopped working as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

B. Peter no longer likes the job as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

C. Peter enjoyed working as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

D. Peter refused to work as a journalist for a local newspaper. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 4 to 5 

Question 4: A. liberty         B. reliable      C. revival       D. final 

Question 5: A. raised          B. developed  C. influenced            D. introduced 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges from 6 to 7 

Question 6: John: ” You’re already leaving? The ball is only starting.” 

– Peter: ” But it’s very late, so __________.” 

A. It’s great fun, thanks

B. Take care 

C. Goodbye for now

D. Have a good day 

Question 7: John: “Why don’t we go to a baseball game?”. 

– Jimmy: “_____________”. 

A. No, thanks. I’d like to sit here

B. I’d rather go to the art gallery 

C. It’s good to play baseball

D. No, I don’t. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair sentences in the following questions from 8 to 9 

Question 8: Beef contains vitamins. Generally, fish contains almost the same vitamins as beef. 

A. Generally, beef and fish may be considered to be a combination of vitamin content. 

B. What vitamin fish contains may be considered in general to be made from beef. 

C. The vitamins content of fish may be considered in general as similar to beef. 

D. The vitamins content of beef is generally considered to come from fish. 

Question 9: The man was shot in the bank robbery. The doctors are operating on him. 

A. The man was whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery. 

B. The man was shot in the bank robbery where the doctors are operating on him. 

C. The doctors are operating on the man who was shot in the bank robbery. 

D. The man whom the doctors are operating on him shot in the bank robbery. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the bolded part in each of the following questions from 10 to 11 

Question 10: He didn’t bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam again. 

A. showed surprise

B. didn’t care 

C. didn’t want to see

D. wasn’t happy 

Question 11: Most universities have trained counselors who can reassure and console students who have academic or personal problems. 

A. please        B. sympathize           C. discourage            D. satisfy 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 12 to 26 

Question 12: – “Are you thinking of flying business class?” – “_____________.” 

A. No, I’d like an aisle seat.

B. I’m flying there to attend a party 

C. No, I’m just on business.

D. No, economy. 

Question 13: If you watch this film, you ________ about the cultures of Southeast Asian countries. 

A. would learn          B. will learn   C. were learning       D. learned 

Question 14: Paul noticed a job advertisement while he __________ along the street. 

A. would walk          B. had walked           C. walked      D. was walking 

Question 15: Solar energy is not widely used ___________ it is friendly to the environment. 

A. in spite of  B. since          C. although    D. because of 

Question 16: The sign warns people ________ the dangers of swimming in this river. 

A. about         B. with           C. from          D. to 

Question 17: _________, they were surprised to find their favourite band playing there. 

A. To have attended the party

B. Just attended the party 

C. On arrival at the party

D. They had arrived at the party 

Question 18: Drinking too much alcohol is said to __________ harm to our health. 

A. take            B. lead            C. make         D. do 

Question 19: At the end of the training course, each participant was presented with a ________ of completion. 

A. diploma     B. certificate  C. degree       D. qualification 

Question 20: The _______ high levels of pollution in the coastal areas are a matter of great concern to the government. 

A. marginally            B. excessively           C. redundantly          D. intensively 

Question 21: Event organisers should plan everything carefully so as to leave nothing to _________.

A. opportunity          B. possibility             C. mistake     D. chance 

Question 22: The woman ________ when the police told her that her son had died. 

A. broke in    B. broke down          C. broke into             D. broke away 

Question 23: __________, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes. 

A. Intelligent as the boy was

B. Intelligent as was the boy 

C. As the boy was intelligent

D. As intelligent the boy was 

Question 24: My friend always dreams of having __________.

A. red sleeping small a bag.

B. a small red sleeping bag. 

C. a bad small red sleeping.

D. small a bag red sleeping. 

Question 25: David graddol, a British linguist, believes that English _________ 80% of computer-based communication in the 1990s. 

A. took up      B. made over             C. answered for        D. accounted for. 

Question 26: ________ every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition. 

A. Having won         B. Winning    C. When he won       D. On winning 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 27 to 28 

Question 27: A. answer          B. cartoon C. open          D. paper 

Question 28: A. knowledgeable   B. prosperity C. development        D. certificate 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from from 29 to 33 

Urbanization programs are being carried out in many parts of the world, especially in densely (29) ______ regions with limited land and resources. It is the natural outcome of economic development and industrialization. It has brought a lot of benefits to our society. However, it also (30) ________ various problems for local authorities and town planners in the process of maintaining sustainable urbanization, especially in developing countries. 

When too many people cram into a small area, urban infrastructure can’t be effective. There will be a (31) ________ of livable housing, energy and water supply. This will create overcrowded urban districts with no proper facilities. Currently, fast urbanization is taking place predominantly in developing countries where sustainable urbanization has little relevance to people’s lives. Their houses are just shabby slums with poor sanitation. Their children only manage to get basic education. Hence, the struggle for (32) _________ is their first priority rather than anything else. Only when the quality of their existence is improved, can they seek (33) ________ other high values in their life. 

—(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 5 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)— 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1-D

2-C

3-A

4-A

5-A

6-C

7-B

8-C

9-C

10-A

11-C

12-D

13-B

14-D

15-C

16-A

17-C

18-D

19-B

20-B

21-B

22-B

23-A

24-B

25-A

26-A

27-B

28-A

29-D

30-B

31-1

32-C

33-C

34-B

35-A

36-B

37-D

38-D

39-D

40-D

41-B

42-D

43-B

44-C

45-D

46-C

47-B

48-C

49-B

50-A

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Lê Quý Đôn. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu có liên quan:

Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Lê Hữu Trác
Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Bà Điểm

Hy vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong kì thi sắp tới.

Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Lê Hữu Trác

16

Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Bà Điểm

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Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Diên Hồng

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Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Võ Thị Sáu

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Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nguyễn Thái Học

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Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Đinh Bộ Lĩnh

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Cẩm Nang Tiếng Anh

Cẩm Nang Tiếng Anh

Cẩm Nang Tiếng Anh - Blog chia sẻ tất cả những kiến thức hay về ngôn ngữ tiếng Anh, nghe nói tiếng Anh, từ vựng tiếng Anh tất cả các chuyên ngành. Kinh nghiệm tự học tiếng Anh tại nhà nhanh nhất, tiết kiệm thời gian, chi phí…
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